Re: If I read this correctly it's nuts (1228 Views)
Posted by:
BitPlayer (IP Logged)
Date: October 03, 2017 07:09PM
As I understand it, there are two common rules on this. One is the rule prevalent in the US that the foul must have cost the fouled horse a placing. The other rule, prevalent in most other parts of the world, is that the guilty horse must have gained an advantage. This sounds like the latter. It makes some sense to me. If my horse fouls another, causing it to finish 3d rather than 2d, why should the horse who finished 2d be moved up to the win position? That horse was not fouled and would not even have finished 2d but for the foul.